At the moment, we have the question "Why do women have more lower body strength than upper body strength?". Seems like a fairly clear cut question.
Several years back, I answered the question "Compared to their overall strength, do women have greater lower body strength?"
Although in my answer I did identify a small difference in the ratios of upper / lower body strength between the sexes, it wasn't nearly as great as I thought it would be. The ratios were essentially the same, but not exactly.
So, is the first question a duplicate, to which the answer is essentially "they don't, and here's proof", or should it be left as is because the very limited sample size I used did reveal a small difference?
(Note: I'm not a statistician, I don't know if it would be seen as a statistically significant difference or not).